Welcome and thank you for taking a bible break to test your knowledge of God's word.
This week's question:

Paul says, "For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek." (Romans 1:16), and that the "righteousness of God is revealed" in this gospel and that "..the righteous man shall live by faith." (Romans 1:17) and we remember that this gospel, the New Testament word, came through our Lord by the Holy Spirit, (Acts 2 all), to give us our faith which comes by hearing the word of God (Romans 10:17). While the Old Testament scriptures were brought by angels (Hebrews 2:2), it was the tutor that did lead to Christ so that we may be justified by faith, "but now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor. For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus." (Galatians 3:24-26).

That brings us to our question, "What is 'The Law' in Romans 2:17?". As there is no partiality with God (Romans 2:11), salvation will come to those who show the "obedience of faith" (Romans 1:5) to the gospel and those that try to hold fast to the Old Testament Law, "a yoke of slavery", will be "severed from Christ, you who want to be justified by Law; you have fallen from grace. (Romans 5:1-4), and are not "obeying the truth" by doing so (Galatians 5:7).

During the time of the Old Testament the Jews were "entrusted with the oracles of God" (Romans 3:2) and so, "for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified." (Romans 2:13) and will be judged by that Law (Romans 2:12). During that same time the Gentiles did not have a written Law, did "instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a Law to themselves, in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them," (Romans 2:14-15) on that judgment day (Romans 2:16).

The Jews were neither better for having the written Law compared to the Gentiles, the rest of the world, for not having a written Law for again God shows no partiality, "What then? Are we better than they? Not at all; for we have already charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin; as it is written, "There is none righteous, not even one;'" (Romans 3:9-10). The works of the Old Law will not justify men as only by the obedience of faith in Christ will a man be justified (Romans 3:22-26). When Jesus died upon the cross, "He passed over the sins previously committed" (Romans 3:25), and then Paul asks, "Where is the boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of Law? Of works? No, but by a law of faith. For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law." (Romans 3:27-28). It is time to ask if this represents two laws in the New Testament, a Law of "works" and a law of "faith" or are we dealing with two different Laws, the Law of works of the Old Testament and the Law of faith of the New Testament? Let us look to the next verses to sum up the question.

"Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also, since indeed God will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith is one. Do we then nullify the Law through faith? May it never be! On the contrary, we establish the Law." (Romans 3:28-31). Just as Abraham was the father to all nations by the seed of Christ (Romans 4:17 & Galatians 3:16), those who seek to be heirs by the Old Law, and if it were so, the law of faith, the New Testament law, would be made void and the promise through the New Testaments scriptures would be nullified (Romans 4:14). Jesus said, concerning the Old Testament Law, "I did not come to abolish but to fulfill." (Matthew 5:17),and indeed He did fulfill all that the scriptures asked Him to do .

Just as a woman is released from her marriage vows when her husband dies (Romans 7:1-3), so are any Jews who "die to the Law through the body of Christ, so that you may be joined to another, to Him, who was raised from the dead," to be "released from the Law, having died to that which we were bound," (Romans 7:4-6). So there we have the answer to our question as the "Law" in Romans 2:17 is referring to the Old Testament Law and the Jews that turn to Christ will die to the Old Law to live in the spirit of our Lord and savior Jesus Christ. "For the Law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set your free from the law of sin and death," (Romans 8:2) , that "yoke of slavery" that our Lord set us free from and those that hold to circumcision are required to keep the "whole Law", yes, the Old Testament Law and have "fallen from grace"! (Galatians 5:1-4).